Origen clearly did not know the TF in its present form. Some would claim that it was not present in any form in his copy of Josephus. If, however, the TF in some form goes back to Josephus (the opinion of half or more modern scholars) then Origen almost certainly knew it in some form.
One problematic phrase in the TF is if it be lawful to call him a man which is held by most scholars to be probably a gloss and unlikely to go back to Josephus. It certainly feels like a gloss but there is extremely little external evidence for omission and it was clearly part of the TF known to Pseudo-Hegesippus
In this context I came across an interesting argument by William Whiston in his Dissertation The Testimonies of Josephus…Vindicated (Dissertation 1 in the Appendix to the unabridged Whiston edition of Josephus.) It argues from Origen’s Commentary on Matthew that Origen was aware of the phrase if it be lawful to call him a man
The relevant passage is Book 10 chapter 17 of Origen’s Commentary on Matthew. Origen is commenting on Matthew 13 54-56 Jesus teaches in the Synagogue at Nazareth so that they were astonished and said “Where did this man get this wisdom and these mighty works ? Is not this the carpenter’s son ? Is not his mother called Mary ? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas ? And are not all his sisters with us ? Where then did this man get all this ?” Origen discusses Jesus’ family and in the process quotes Josephus on James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ adding that Josephus did not accept Jesus as Christ. Origen then goes on to say And perhaps by these things is indicated a new doubt concerning him that Jesus was not a man but something diviner.
Whiston argues that this idea of Jesus being something diviner than a man so resembles the phrase in the the TF as to suggest that Origen, having just previously referred to Josephus on James and Jesus, has it in mind. I would add that there is nothing in the pericope from Matthew to suggest the inference Origen draws. English translations may obscure this by saying Where did this man get this wisdom and these mighty works ? but there is nothing in the Greek here specifically corresponding to man in the English translation.
It does in fact seem plausible IMO that Origen, expounding a Gospel passage about the implications for his identity of Jesus’ words and works, is alluding to the passage in the TF where the words and works of Jesus make it questionable whether he should be called a man.
UPDATE (Carlson, Oct. 16, 2006): For more postings about the TF, please see the listing in The Testimonium Flavianum Series, to which this post has been added.
